Revision date: 12/14/99 Revision date: 12/14/99
The following is a summation of advice I've given students over the years who have asked how they might IMPROVE their exam scores in the class. I make no PROMISES as to the success individuals will have if they follow this advice, but some students have told me that it has helped them.
First, determine how YOU LEARN BEST. Not everyone learns things the same way, so what works for one person may fail completely with another. Once you've ascertained how your mind LEARNS BEST you can build on your natural learning abilities. Most people learn best by one of following four ways:
By listening to the information. You should
come to all the lectures and sit up front.
By reading the information. Either obtain a
printed version of the NetText or study it off the monitor. Because I make small changes
it is a good idea to check the Chapters once per week. If the "REVISION DATE"
has changed I have changed something.
By writing down the information. Convert
the text/lecture material into a set of notes in your own hand.
By a combination of the above.
There are some things you must accept before setting out to improve your scores:
Now for some easy things (in theory) you can try:
If you're sitting at the back of the
class, MOVE TO THE FRONT. It has a strange effect on most people; they listen better and
learn more and fall asleep less (also they can count the hairs in the professor's nose).
If you're not ATTENDING CLASS
REGULARLY, do so. Some of the information will be bound to stick unless you are an
exceptionally sound sleeper. Even the worse, most boring professor usually gives out some
good information. Think of it like going to a restaurant where the chef may be a boring
lout, but produces fantastic meals; you don't have to love the chef to have a DELIGHTFUL
gastronomic (educational) experience.
If you're not taking notes, begin
taking them. Even if it is already in the hand outs, NetText or you buy the notes, the act
of writing tells your mind "hey! This is serious stuff,
I'd better pay attention". Also, if you're tending to drift off during
the lectures, this will keep you awake (the sound of your pencil hitting the floor will
wake you).
Think and talk about the material with
someone. Again, this impresses the heck our of the mind and causes pathways of memory to
be carved into its GRANITE STRUCTURE.
Actively participate in your learning.
Ask questions in class or go visit your instructor and/or TA for explanations of things
you don't understand (or chat on the net). There are a couple of secrets that I'll let you
in on. First, professors are ACTUALLY PAID
(real money) to answer your questions and secondly, most of them LOVE
a chance to genuinely help people learn--we're so strange most of us really get
off on teaching.
Great, but you ask: "I still have to study, so how do I do that EFFICIENTLY?" Well this is the hard part as it means sacrifice. In practical terms it usually means hard work, giving up some social life (gasp!!), and organizing your time. Here are some steps that may help you.
Make up you your OWN ESSAY
EXAMS covering the material or use those provided for each Chapter. For
example, you might write out the following question on virus replication: "List and explain the common steps in the replication of virus. Give an
example of each step using both a phage and a eukaryotic virus. Illustrate these steps
with properly labeled cartoons of each step. Describe important differences between groups
of viruses". Then write out the ENTIRE ANSWER, using your best
English. Grade it (with a red marker) like you're an instructor who's just found out the
student they're grading is playing "slap 'n tickle" with his/her mate. If you do
poorly, study more (as you grade it critically you will have ALREADY DONE most of your
studying) and answer the question fully again. Repeat until satisfied.
After you've recovered from the shock of this suggestion consider what it requires. Namely, such a high degree of understanding of the material that no question by the professor (in this case that beloved, kindly, saint Dr. Hurlbert) can stump you. In case you haven't tumbled to the obvious already, this technique requires beginning to study about a week before the exam. If you try this the night before, you will resemble an unhealthy zombie on the day of the exam.
Study with a group of associates from
the class, but study in such a way that you ACTIVELY PARTICIPATE. That is, when I was a
student in the cave, some of the poorly performing students would ask to study with those
getting the better grades. Invariably, the poorer performing students tended to just
listen to the better students explain things, but their minds would NOT BE FULLY ENGAGED
in the task of learning. Partly the poorer students lacked confidence and were afraid to
display their IGNORANCE, but some of them wanted to absorbed the information without
putting out effort. If you're serious about improving your grade you have to be willing to
EMBARRASS yourself in order to find out where the GAPS IN YOUR UNDERSTANDING ARE; that is,
you have to say "As I understand this theory, this is the
way it works.....bla, bla etc." Then the other students should say
"well, no that's NOT THE WAY IT IS, rather it is like
this...bla, bla etc." and you have to say "let's see if I fully understand it. It works like this....bla, bla bla etc.".
Until you have it down pat. Boy, this is DIFFICULT TO DO, but it pays off in the end; you
decide what it's worth to you.
Finally there are a variety of
resources available on campus to help students with learning disabilities or problems that
interfere with learning. The SALC center in Cleveland 57 and the Counseling Services in
Ad. Annex 300 are the places to go to get this help. DON'T DELAY in seeking help. If you
feel that you're floundering within the FIRST TWO OR THREE WEEKS into a course, move
ASSERTIVELY to get help; there's nothing so discouraging as having a student come in with
a low grade a week before finals and say "WHAT CAN I DO TO IMPROVE MY GRADE My answer
is usually to try PRAYER!
If you fit any of these categories you may have a problem. The heady sense of freedom of being able to CHOOSE when you study course material, of not being tied to a schedule of classes and, for the DLS, of being able to delay taking an exam until YOU DECIDE you are ready is seductive. However, students who have been conditioned to attend class at specified times and to take exams on predetermined dates often find these new "freedoms" difficult to manage. In "short", many students, having abrogated SELF-DISCIPLINE, MATURITY and MOTIVATION to outside control, find it hard to take back (or develop) these responsibilities. It is easy to "put-off" studying until the last moment even when we are under a rigid schedule. It is difficult enough to study for something we find uninteresting or difficult, but an inflexible lecture schedule forces us to listen to the material and the fixed exam times require that we study that material at regular intervals. When these imposed requirements are removed, it is all too easy to drift and procrastinate studying the material.
There is no easy solution to this problem. The only answer is:
As your instructor I will try to help you if you have this problem, but as my time and energy are limited there is realistically very little I can do. I will attempt to keep open a dialog with the DLS and thus will encourage (or even nag a bit) them to move ahead. I will provide any reasonable assistance I can as long as everyone taking the course is treated equally. I can not tutor individuals or give "special" dispensations when students get into trouble as I am confined by my own and the Universitie's ethics.
FINAL GRADE DISTRIBUTION:
FALL 1999
| GRADE | # | % |
| A | ||
| B | ||
| C | ||
| D |
NOTE: The second and third exam tend to be more difficult than the 1st and final. So if you did well on this one, don't slack off; PLEASE.
In an attempt to help you understand my reasoning on difficult/controversial questions I am "EXPLAINING" my answers on questions that students complained about or otherwise had problems with. Below are my thoughts on certain general issues:
QUESTION: "
If I missed a question because I answered it based on something different I learned in another course why shouldn't I receive credit?"ANSWER: First, I have no way of knowing if your "learning" was "correct" in the previous class. Secondly, I don't know the "context" that the previous information was presented in. Every course presents information in a "context" of a larger picture and that context determines the correctness of a "fact". For example, if an instructor in agriculture describes a rose bush in a wheat-field as being a "WEED", you would likely not be correct in calling it a WEED in a landscaping course. For example, the answer to the following question would differ depending on the course "CONTEXT": A rose bush is a WEED. True or False.
QUESTION: "If an instructor writes a "TRICKY QUESTION" and I interpet it differently from him, why isn't my answer just as correct as the instructor's?"
ANSWER: First, contrary to what the vast majority of students perceive, most instructors do not, in the negative sense, write 'TRICKY' questions. Rather, we write "CHALLENGING or CRITICAL THINKING QUESTIONS". CTQ are designed to test the depth and breadth of a student's knowledge, their understanding of complex issues and their reasoning abilities. We all demand that individuals be judged on these characteristics don't we? We all want our doctors, auto-mechanics etc. to not only have memorized the names of the various parts of bodies or autos, but to be able to use this knowledge to solve difficult problems; that is, to use the facts they have learned to deal with challenging and unexpected situations. Otherwise when we get sick we'd visit a computer as their memories are much better than humans.
Secondly, as in the answer given above, CTQ are context driven. Exam questions are expected to be given in the context of what was taught in the course. Whereas facts learned in other courses may be used in answering CTQ, they must be used in the context of the course or subject matter being studied.
Finally, all instructors occasionally write poor questions that may be correctly interpreted in a way different from what was intended. In those cases I, and most other instructors, happily give the students their well-earned credit.
Four exams from previous years covering each of the four lecture sections comprising the lecture portion of the course are presented below. I have several versions of many questions and I create new ones all the time to keep from getting stale, so students should be careful about "memorizing" a specific answer to a given question since a slight change in a version frequently completely changes the answer. Starting in the Fall of 1998, as the on-campus students complete an exam I place it on this page both as the answers to the exam and as an example of my latest exam over that section.
The answers, explanations etc. are indicated in RED.
The percentage of students that answered each question correctly is in RED after the question. Explanations of the answers to questions where <50% of the students answered correctly or where students questioned the choice of answers are given in RED after the correct answer.
1. This course is taught using the process of REDUCTIONISM which involves….: P/2 90
A. Eliminating all scientific vocabulary and replacing them with common terminology.
B. Reducing the number of exams from one/week to 4 per semester.
*C. Breaking the learning components in the course into small easily grasp concepts.
D. Dropping from the course a large number of microbiological subjects.
2. A ligand is…: P/3 92.5
A. An antigen or an antibody.
B. A protein that sits in the cell wall and detects what’s occurring on the outside of the cell.
C. A major component of the theory of evolution.
*D. A small molecule or small portion of a molecule that binds to a receptor.
3. Almost everything regarding the nature and workings of microbes that will be discussed in this course will relate back to…: (Give the BEST answer) P/3 72.5
*A. Evolution and ligand/receptor interactions.
B. Mutations and their role in evolution.
C. The age of the earth.
D. Natural Selection.
4. The current best estimates of the age of the earth are that it is _____ years old: P/5 55
A. 3.5 billion.
B. 6,000
*C. 4.0 to 4.5 billion
D. 4.0 to 4.5 million
5. The objective lens in your microscope that, with the eye piece, most approximates the magnifying power of the first person to see bacteria is…: 1/4 87.5
*A. The 40X
B. The 10X
C. The 20X
D. The 100X
6. The first person to see bacteria did his work mostly in what century? 1/3 42.5
A. 18th
B. 19th
*C. 17th Since Leeuwenhoek was born in 1632 and died in 1723, he lived and worked MOSTLY in the 17th century.
D. 14th
7. The idea of a Magic Bullet to fight disease first occurred to…: 1/13 65
A. E. Jenner
*B. Paul Ehrlich
C. L. Pasteur
D. R. Koch
8. That "Cowpox" was an important disease to humans was first recognized by…: 1/12 80
*A. E. Jenner
B. Paul Ehrlich
C. L. Pasteur
D. R. Koch
9. The usefulness of agar agar in microbiology was first discovered in the laboratory of…: 1/11 47.5
A. E. Jenner
B. Paul Ehrlich
C. L. Pasteur
*D. R. Koch Dr. Hess worked in Dr. Kock's lab
10. The defining experiment that showed that higher animals did not arise spontaneously from raw materials was shown by…: 1/6 57.5
*A. Proving that rotten meat didn’t produce flies unless fly eggs could be laid on the meat.
B. Proving that bacteria would not grow in sterile soup (media) if they were prevented from entering using a container call a "swan-necked flask".
C. Proving that disinfectant prevented living organisms from growing in and spoiling foods.
D. Showing that high heat could kill all forms of life.
11. The major function of the cell membrane is….: 2/3 90
A. To keep water from entering the cell, which causes it to burst.
B. To bind lipids in the hydrophobic inner layer.
C. To trap energy so the cell can use it for the functions of life.
*D. To protect the internal components of a cell from the chaos outside of a cell.
12. The major defining difference(s) between a PROKARYOTIC and a EUKARYOTIC cell is/are….: 3/4 72.5
*A. The absence of membrane-bound organelles in prokaryotes.
B. The absence of membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes.
C. The lack of photosynthesis by prokaryotic cells.
D. The use of ATP as an energy source by the more complex eukaryotic cells.
13. The ability to detect light and to sense the nature of the environment around you is limited to eukaryotic cells that have evolved complex organs like eyes and noses. 3/3 60
A. True
*B. False
14. When we see or smell food and begin salivating, the cell component that is responsible for that reaction is….: 3/5 60
A. The nucleus
B. The mitochondria
*C. The golgi apparatus
D. The chloroplast
15. Bacteria at different locations within a colony can assume different functions and size/shapes. 3/7 67.5
*A. True
B. False
Match the function or unique characteristic of bacterial components in the list below with the descriptions given in the next five questions.
A. Ribosomes
B. Plasmid
C. Pili
D. LPS or lipopolysaccharide
E. Sulfur granules.
16. Protein rod-like adhesion structures: ___C__. 3/7 75
17. Storage material: ___E__. 3/4 65
18. Outer membrane component, often toxic: ___D__. 3/7 70
19. Protein factory: ___A__. 3/4 72.5
20. Small circular DNA: ___B__. 3/4 50
21. Which of these series of numbers best describes EXPONENTIAL or LOGARITHMIC GROWTH? 4/2 90
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12
*C. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64
D. 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19
22. The maximum temperature (in Co) that extreme thermophiles are known to grow is…: 4/6 70
*A. ~110
B. ~100
C. ~95
D. ~65
23. All bacteria require a source of gaseous oxygen (O2). 4/4 90
A. True
*B. False
24. The central portion of all atoms contain: 5/2 50
A. Electron shell(s)
B. Electron(s)
C. Neutron(s)
*D. Proton(s) Not all atoms have neutrons, but ALL have protons.
25. The polynucleotide DNA contains which sugar? 5/10 80
*A. Deoxyribose
B. Ribose
C. Uracil
D. Sucrose
26. The strands or chains of double-stranded DNA are held together by what type of bonds: 5/11 62.5
A. Covalent
*B. Hydrogen
C. Hydrophilic
D. Peptide
27. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The term POLAR as in POLAR MOLECULE refers to…: 5/6-7 75
A. Those molecules that are present in magnets and which confer the ability of that material with magnetic properties (e.g. a north and south pole).
B. Those molecules that are composed of asymmetrical hydrophobic molecules so that they have a lipid pole.
*C. Those molecules in which the atomic components are arranged asymmetrically so as to give the molecule slight opposite charges on the ends.
D. Those molecules that are formed by peptide bonds which so as to have a positive and negative pole.
28. Which of the following statements BEST describes SCIENCE? 6/4 90
A. It is the search for the truth of the physical and spiritual universe.
B. It is the search for the truth about God.
C. It is the search for proof that God doesn’t exist and is only an invention of man.
*D. It is the search for the truth of the physical universe.
29. When scientists make a pronouncement "that a set of facts is TRUE", what they mean is….: 6/5 92.5
*A. That the current data/observations indicate something appears to be true, but later data may show it to be false.
B. Just what the words say.
C. That scientists, as a group, have voted on whether a finding(s) is/are true and the majority have decided that it is true.
D. That the present government, based on a democratic vote by its citizens or their representatives, have determined that a particular scientific finding is the TRUTH.
30. A "HYPOTHESIS" is…: 6/7 97.5
A. Another name for a theory; i.e., they mean the same thing.
B. A theory that has been proven to be true.
*C. An idea or trial. Corrected during exam ".....on trial".
D. A myth that has no basis in fact or observation.
31. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: In the scientific world which of the following statements belong BEST explains the terms OBJECTIVITY and SKEPTICISM? 6/7-8 97.5
A. The importance of getting data that agrees with previous findings and an attitude that what others report is likely correct.
B. The idea that science is basically a religion and that any findings/observations that seem to conflict with the Bible must be in error.
*C. The elimination of predetermined ideas as to what data/observations tells you/means and an attitude that all findings/observations may be wrong.
D. The perspective that all data/observations must be interpreted in a moral context and that any findings that aren’t based on common sense must be in error.
32. Running experiments to collect accurate data under laboratory conditions is easy compared to collecting accurate data outside the laboratory. 6/8 52.5
*A. True
B. False
33. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: Which of the statements below BEST defines a NATURAL LAW? 6/9 77.5
*A. A THEORY that has been tested over a long period without falsification.
B. A HYPOTHESIS that has been tested over a long period without falsification.
C. A THEORY that has been VOTED by the scientific society of that science (e.g. American Society of Microbiology) as being correct.
D. A THEORY that has been proposed by a committee made up of the leading scientist in a given area of science.
34. The SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS states that …..: 6/11 85
A. "….for life to be formed this law must be broken".
B. "….the order of the universe tends to increase where life exists".
*C. ".…the entropy (disorder) of the universe tends to increase".
D. "….the amount of energy in the universe changes over time".
35. The basis of EVOLUTION is the process of NATURAL SELECTION (NS). NS is…: 6/31 95
A. That term given to man’s selection of those plants and animals that are commercially desirable.
*B. The process of the environment selecting those mutations that contribute best to survival that leads to reproduction.
C. A religious dogma propagated by atheistic scientific fanatics who are determined to destroy religion and the morals that go with it.
D. A description of how mutations occur and how they benefit mankind.
36. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The term "missing link (ML)" is a focal point of the creationist’s argument against evolution. Which of the statements below BEST answers/counters that argument? 6/28 42.5
A. Paleontologists have found MLs for almost every species present on earth today.
B. All evolutionary scientists have agreed on the characteristics that a ML would have and are actively looking for them at present.
C. Currently there simply is (according to Dr. Hurlbert) no good answer to this criticism of evolution.
*D. All living creatures are actually MLs as they contain mutations that are being "tested" for survival fitness by the current environment.
37. Creationists argue that CREATION SCIENCE has found proof that evolution is wrong. Which of the following statements BEST explains/defines CREATION SCIENCE? 6/27 55
*A. It does not exist as defined by the current process known as the SCIENTIFIC METHOD.
B. It is that science, that is defined as the direct instructions/explanations of God given directly to those who are worthy to receive it.
C. It is based on rigidly objective experimentation and observation of the universe by (only) Christian scientists that are published in peer-reviewed scientific journals.
D. It is the determination of scientific laws that have been taken from all the holy books of the various different religions of humans.
38. The THEORY OF EVOLUTION is how many years old? 6/24 75
A. 1,000
B. 50
*C. ~150
D. 250
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of PSEUDOSCIENCE? 6/17-18 72.5
*A. Able to be quantified.
B. No college degree required.
C. Deals with anecdotal evidence for its "proof".
D. Usually considered entertaining and fun.
40. Which of the following is NOT an example of a pseudoscience? 6/19-20 75
A. UFOs
B. Creationism
*C. Ecology
D. Astrology
41. Which of the following statements best explains the term "UNITY OF BIOCHEMISTRY"? 7/2 77.5
A. Refers to the fact that all life is carbon-based.
B. Refers to the fact that all life depends on enzymes to carry out the processes of life.
C. Refers to the fact that all living organisms metabolize sugar molecules like glucose the same way.
*D. Refers to the fact that the way cells carry out the processes of life is similar for all life on earth; including humans.
42. Which of the following biochemical processes is NOT an example of CATABOLISM? 7/3 42.5
*A. The synthesis of an amino acid.
B. The metabolism of table sugar in your tea or coffee.
C. The running of a race.
D. The digestion of food in the intestine.
43. All proteins are composed of how many unique amino acids? 7/5 70
A. 4
B. ~40,000
*C. 20
D. 121
44. The form of a protein that is determined directly by a cell’s DNA is its….: 7/6 25
*A. Primary form
B. Nucleic acid sequence
C. 3-letter codon
D. Peptide bonds
45. The energy that is required to "start/initiate" an exothermic chemical reaction is known as….: 7/8 57.5
A. Catalytic energy
B. ATP energy
C. Optimum energy
*D. Activation energy
46. The average molecular weight or size of an enzyme is….: 7/9 65
A. 3,000
*B. ~40,000
C. 111
D. 300
47. That area/place on an enzyme where the job the enzyme is designed for occurs is called the….: 7/11 65
A. Allosteric site
*B. Active site
C. Antibody site
D. "Key" site
48. Which of the following is NOT, or can NOT be, a COFACTOR? 7/14 80
A. Vitamin C
B. Iron (Fe)
C. Vitamin B12
*D. A proton
49. Competitive inhibitors of enzymes act by…..: 7/16 80
A. Chemically modifying the enzyme.
B. Competing with the enzyme for the limited available ATP.
*C. Blocking the site on an enzyme where the chemical reaction the enzyme was designed to carry out occurs.
D. Denaturing the enzyme by disrupting the hydrogen bonds that maintain the enzyme in its functional form.
50. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: Enzyme activity is regulated mainly by allosteric molecules and by the addition (or removal) of certain chemical groups to specific amino acids. Both these actions control enzymes by….: 7/19 45
A. Permanently modifying an enzyme’s amino acid composition.
*B. Temporally changing an enzyme’s functional shape so as to render it inactive. This is the BEST, most inclusive answer; not all enzymes have cofactors.
C. Temporally blocking the cofactor’s access to its site on the enzyme so as to render it inactive.
D. Breaking the enzyme down into its constituent amino acid subunits. This is what a protease does.
Fall 1999
AVERAGE = 66; 12 questions were answered by less than 50% of the class. This is about normal for this exam and is apparently due to the complexity of the mateial.
1. GREGOR MENDEL is famous in genetics because he discovered……: 8/8 79.5
A. The chemical nature of DNA.
B. The genetic code.
*C. The existence of units of inheritance.
D. The operon2. The term MITOTIC EVENTS refers to….: 8/9 61.5
*A. The organized separation of chromosomes during cell division.
B. The replication of DNA molecules during cell division.
C. The separation of genes into DOMINANT and RECESSIVE units during cell division.
D. The process of cell wall formation that occurs during conjugation.3. FRED GRIFFITH was the discoverer of….: 8/10 61.5
A. The operon
B. Viruses
C. The theory of Evolution
*D. Transformation4. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: When a heat-killed avirulent strain of Streptococcus pneumonia is injected into mice…….: 8/10 59; the correct answer was based on two items of information: (1) the term "avirulent" means unable to cause a disease and (2) the experiment was described in detail in the text, in a figure and in lecture.
A. The Streptococcus pneumonia is transformed into a virulent form.
B. The mouse dies
*C. The mouse lives Being avirulent the mouse (mice) would live whether the Strep. was alive or dead.
D. The Streptococcus pneumonia is transformed into a capsulated avirulent form5. The structure of DNA was discovered by…..: 8/12 92.3
A. J. Watson and F. Griffith
*B. J. Watson and F. Crick
C. C. Darwin and F. Crick
D. L. Pasteur and R. Koch6. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: In the nurture vs. nature controversy the current scientific view is….: 8/14 71.8
A. That mutations in the womb determine the personality of humans.
B. That toxins in the environment are responsible for most behavioral problems of humans.
C. That NATURE has little to do with human behavior.
*D. That NATURE has a lot to do with human behavior.7. The 3 major steps of DNA replication are: 8/16 35.9; Answer based on knowledge that (1) the strand backbone is bonded with covalent bonds and the base pairs are bonded with hydrogen bonds. Both were discussed extensively in the text and in class.
A. DNA polymerase binding and strand separation; pairing of bases to old strands; hydrogen bonding of backbone strand components.
*B. DNA polymerase binding and strand separation; pairing of bases to parent strands; covalent bonding of backbone strand components.
C. RNA polymerase binding and strand separation; pairing of bases to old strands; covalent bonding of backbone strand components.
D. DNA polymerase binding and strand separation; pairing of bases to old strands; covalent bonding of base-pairs to each other.8. The GENETIC CODE has ______ codons. 8/19 69.2
A. 20
B. 22
*C. 64
D. 12 (3 x 4)9. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The idea for mRNA came from….. 8/19 51.3
*A. The observation of a transitory form of RNA appearing only during protein synthesis.
B. The observation of a transitory form of RNA appearing only during DNA synthesis.
C. The fact that tRNA is never found in cells that are not actively dividing.
D. The fact that all forms of RNA are very unstable and break down very easy so they don’t last long in a cell.10. Which of the following words or statements does NOT apply to the GENETIC CODE? 8/20 64.1
A. Universal
*B. Unique in plants.
C. Degenerate
D. Contains punctuation.11. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: Mutations are HARMFUL or BENEFICIAL because….: 8/21 89.7
A. They induce the production of chemical substances, some of which are toxins and others are antibiotics.
B. They improve or decrease the proofreading efficiency of DNA polymerase.
C. They result in more or less efficient movement.
*D. They result in a change in the genetic code. The environment, through natural selection, determines if a mutation is good, bad or neutral.12. The following is a list of mutagenic agents. Which one is the most dangerous, all things considered, to us in our everyday lives? 8/21-22 94.9
A. X-rays
B. Cosmic rays
C. Atomic radiation; radioactivity
*D. UV light
E. Mutagenic chemicals in our environment.13. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: Which of the following is an ALLELE most like? (BEST ANSWER) 8/25 89.7
A. Hamburger.
B. DNA polymerase.
*C. Different makes of cars. ,
D. Different animal species.14. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: In the lactose operon, if the operator region of the system was REMOVED (while the base-pair sequence remained in frame) the result would be that……: 8/41 35.9; Answer based on understanding how the lac operon was regulated--if there was no operon site for the regulatory protein to bind to it couldn't stop transcription.
A. Lactose could not be utilized.
B. mRNA would not be made.
C. DNA polymerase would not bind to the cell’s DNA.
*D. The structural genes would transcribed all the time. Without the operator the repressor protein has no place to bind, thus it can't block the RNA polymerase.15. E. coli was chosen to study gene regulation because…..: 8/38 23.1; There was a long section in the text on this and it was discussed in the lec. C is incorrect because there are many other bacteria that grow just as well as E. coli as you've observed in the lab. The pt was made that because E. coli was tested for in so many labs the media for growing it was very very common.
*A. Media for growing it was available in almost every microbiology lab in the world. E. coli was used to test for fecal pollution in eater all over the world.
B. It is non-pathogenic.
C. It is the easiest of all bacteria to obtain and grow.
D. It is one of the few bacteria that regulates the synthesis of its enzymes.16. Which of the following is the BEST description of RIBOSOMES? 8/33 66.7
A. It is a form of RNA that transfers amino acids to the protein synthesizing site.
*B. It is the cell’s protein factory and is composed of >40 proteins and several small RNAs.
C. Ribosomes are protein storage bodies that are formed when a cell is grown in a rich nutritional environment.
D. Ribosomes are special membranes that bind the enzymes involved in protein synthesis.The following is the base sequence of a portion of NONSENSE or ANTISENSE DNA: GGCTTATACGC.
Match the proper base-pair sequence FROM THE LIST BELOW with the next FOUR questions. 8/22A. GGCUUAUACGC
B. GGC
C. CCGAATATGCG
D. CCG
E. AUG17. The sequence of mRNA copied from the sense strand: __A__. 79.5
18. The sequence of the sense strand of DNA: ___C__.87.2
19. The sequence of the anticodon of the FIRST (reading left to right) codon: __D__.79.5
20. The sequence of the anticodon of the THIRD (reading left to right) codon: __E__.76.9
Match the genetic exchange system given below with the descriptions in the next five questions:
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C Transformation21. Involves cell free or naked DNA: __C__. 9/5 76.9
22. Requires a fertility plasmid: __A__. 9/10 82.1
23. Most common way antibiotic resistance genes are spread: __A__. 9/3 61.5
24. Mediated by bacteriophage: __B__. 9/12 79.5
25. Virulence determinants are often spread this way: __A__. 9/3 28.2; Much said about this in text and lecture, wish I knew where the problem was?
26. The science of MOLECULAR BIOLOGY……: (BEST ANSWER) 10/4 82.1
A. Deals mainly with the sequencing of DNA.
B. Is concerned with how mutations affect phenotypes.
C. Deals mainly with the amino acid sequencing of important protein molecules.
*D. Is concerned with how biological molecules interact with each other.27. If you have the genetic disease, Celiac Sprue or Sprue, which of the following foods can you not eat? 10/5 (see Newsweek Mag 10/11/99) 76.9
A. Corn products
*B. Wheat products
C. Peanut products
D. Peas and related foods28. Which of these sequences of DNA contains both a 5 & 6 letter palindromic site? 10/8 48.7; There are no 5 or 6 palindromic sites in C or A.
A. TGCATAGGC
*B. CCAGGATCC CCAGG & GGATCC
C. ATAATGGCCG
D. CGAAUUCGAT29. The difference between "blunt end cutting restriction enzymes & those that produce an overhang" is that…..: 10/9-10 61.5
*A. The products of the blunt end cutters can be ligated to any other blunt ended DNA molecule.
B. The products of the overhang cutters can be ligated to any other overhang ended DNA molecule.
C. The overhang cutting restriction enzymes can only cut palindromic sites comprised of 4 base pairs.
D. The blunt end cutting restriction enzymes can only cut odd numbered palindromic sites.30. The enzyme that forms covalent bonds between the ends of DNA strands cut with restriction enzymes is……: 10/11 79.5
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
*C. Ligase
D. DNase31. The process of CLONING is defined as…….: 10/12 41; Both B and D are wrong because these processes come only AFTER moving the gene.
*A. The moving of a gene from one DNA molecule to another.
B. The process of replicating a plasmid containing a "gene of interest"
C. The transforming of a plasmid into a bacterial cell where it can replicate.
D. The process of reproducing many copies of a gene.32. To AMPLIFY in "gene speak" means to…..: 10/13, 29 82.1
A. To produce a copy of a particular vector.
B. The replicate RNA in a test tube as opposed to in a cell.
C. Clone a gene that copies DNA.
*D. To make many copies of a gene or known sequence of DNA.33. Although we are able to manipulate DNA in many ways we are still unable to produce specific mutations on demand. 10/13 56.4
A. True
*B. False We are able to change individual base pairs at specific locations in sequenced genes.34. Genetically engineered transgenic plants and animals are becoming commonplace in today’s world. 10/14 89.7
*A. True
B. False35. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The PCR reaction is made possible by a special polymerase. Which of the following descriptions best explains the importance of using this unique polymerase. 10/31 61.5
A. The unique DNA polymerase used in PCR copies only short fragments of DNA, the kind made in this reaction.
B. The unique RNA polymerase used in PCR makes the PRIMER required to start the reaction.
*C. The DNA polymerase from a thermophilic microbe tolerates the high temperatures used in the PCR.
D. The DNA polymerase from a psychrophilic microbe tolerates the low temperatures used in the PCR.36. PRIMERS, used in PCR, are……: 10/29 59
*A. Short single strands of DNA that are required to bracket the site being copied by binding to the targeted DNA strands.
B. A mixture of the 4 nucleotide triphosphates, ATP, GTP, CTP and TTP that prime the polymerization process.
C. Commercial enzymes that are required for PCR to occur.
D. Are mixtures of buffers, and salts that provide the optimum environment for the PCR reaction.37. DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify individuals because……: 10/15-17 87.2
A. The DNA of all humans, including identical twins, is, due to mutational differences, cut at different places by restriction enzymes.
B. The DNA that determines human fingerprints can be isolated and its specific pattern used to produce a person’s fingerprints, in the absence of fingerprint evidence.
*C. The DNA of all humans, except identical twins, is, due to mutational differences, cut at different places by restriction enzymes.
D. The DNA of all humans, except identical twins, is, due to mutational differences, cut at different places by ligase enzymes.38. After DNA fragments are run in an agarose gel the larger fragments run ahead of the smaller ones because of their larger negative charge. 10/animation pg 18 89.7
A. True
*B. False39. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The following DNA fragment is hybridized with 4 different DNA fragments (A-D). If it binds to one of these fragments, choose it, but if it won’t bind to any of them choose E. Assume that at least 9 components must bind for the fragment to bind. 10/19-24, Fig. 10 48.7; There were 10 correct base pairing in D; think of a rope made of many strands (bonds) that has some of the strands broken yet it is able to hold a certain amount of weight.
AAGCCTACGGAC
A. AAGGCTAGGGTG
B. TACCGTTCCCTG
C. TTCGGACTGGGC
*D. TTCGGATCCCAG TTCGGATCCCAG The ones in red form H-bonds the ones in green don't.
E. No binding to A-D
40. The special MEMBRANE that is employed in the HYBRIDIZATION procedure does what? 10/22 48.7; The role of this membrane was discussed at length in the text, in several fig. and in the lec. The process of hybridization can not be understood unless the concept of fixing the target DNA to something.
A. It tightly binds the agarose so as to keep the DNA from being lost.
*B. It tightly binds the DNA fragments separated on the agarose gel.
C. It contains the reporter molecules that indicate the presence of unique DNA.
D. It light up when a DNA fragment binds to it so that one can detect the presence of the desired DNA.
41. The best definition of a VIRUS is…..: 11/5 84.6
A. An obligate intracellular parasite with both DNA or RNA as its genomic material.
*B. An obligate intracellular parasite with either DNA or RNA as its genomic material.
C. A small (20 to 250 nm) genome covered by a protein membrane.
D. A self replicating protein found in the brain of some animals.
42. An ENVELOPED VIRUS differs from a NAKED VIRUS in that…..: 11/7 71.8
A. A naked virus has no covering around the genomic material while an enveloped virus has a lipid membrane covering its genome.
B. A naked virus has only a capsid covering its the genomic material while an enveloped virus has only a lipid membrane covering its genome.
C. A naked virus always has double stranded DNA as genetic material, whereas an enveloped virus may have either DNA or RNA as its genetic material.
*D. The naked virus has only a capsid while the enveloped virus also has a lipid membrane.
43. All viruses are highly specific as to the hosts they infect in that they only attack a single species. 11/8 84.6
A. True
*B. False
44. Associated with MAD COW DISEASE: 11/22 79.5
A. Viroids
*B. Prions
C. Encephalitic viruses
D. Reverse transcriptase
45. The drug AZT belongs to which general class of antiviral drugs? 11/21 35.9; This was discussed in describing antiviral agents, in which AZT was used as the major example.
A. Specific antibodies that bind to viruses and remove them from the infected host.
*B. Analogues that inhibit a critical viral process.
C. Vaccines that prevent viral diseases.
D. Cytokines that enhance the immune system.
46. It is possible to eliminate some viral diseases from the earth? 11/20 38.5; Mentioned several times in the lecture and text that science of capable of doing this now.
*A. True
B. False
47. If a physician tells you he is treating your viral infection with an antibiotic you should….: 11/20 71.8
A. Feel good that your doctor knows his business and you are in good hands.
B. Make certain that he is using the best antibiotic for your particular viral infection.
*C. Get a new physician because yours doesn’t know his business.
D. Stop taking the antibiotic because it will induce antibiotic resistant viruses.
48. Engulfment or endocytosis is….: 11/16 59
*A. The process of virus uptake that involves engulfing the entire virus.
B. The final stage in virus reproduction in eukaryotic cells which involves the release of the complete virion.
C. The taking up of the special nutrients by cells that are hosting viruses that are required for virus reproduction.
D. The process of budding of complete virions.
49. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The MATURATION process of a virus might BEST be likened to…..: 11/13 41;
A. The leaving of a completed product from a factory.
B. The replication of document on a copy machine.
*C. The assembly of a car on an assembly line. Individual parts are brought together and assembled into the finished, functional product.
D. The maturing of a teenager into an adult. In this case the parts (already in place) are modified to do different things by ligand (hormones) driven reactions with receptors.
50. After a virus successfully invades a host one of the first thing it does is to transcribe mRNA that is translated into special ribosomes for making viral protein. 11/13 25.6; The fact that a virus uses the host's synthetic machinery for making new viruses was stressed in the text and in the lecture.
A. True
*B. False
1. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: If you suffer from allergies when indoors the best thing(s) you can do before seeking medical help is/are…..: If only one of A-C is correct, choose it, otherwise choose D or E as the correct answer. 16/27-29
A. Remove feces of the house louse.
B. Remove all pets; particularly cats and/or dogs and clean well.
C. Treat the house so as to eliminate cockroaches.
D. A & C
*E. A, B & C
2. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The best way to avoid getting a virulent infectious disease these days is…. Chap 14
A. To be immunized against all the possible diseases.
B. To take antibiotics for the rest of your life.
*C. To live in a developed country.
D. To visit your doctor on a regular basis.
3. The CELLULAR IMMUNE system refers to….: 15/13
A. The soluble antibody system
*B. The T-cell immune system
C. The macrophage immune system
D. The complement immune system.
4. Even though there are no visible breaks or lesions in the protective tissue lining the genitourinary tract one can contract an STD through unprotected sexual intercourse. 16/8
*A. True _____
B. False ______
5. The CIA has contributed significantly to the efficacy of transmission of HIV among Black Africans and African Americans. 16/8
A. True _____
*B. False ______
6. Protease Inhibitors work by: 16/20
*A. Inhibiting the maturation of HIV.
B. Blocking transcription.
C. By causing HIV to lyse or dissolve.
D. By blocking the pili of Treponema pallidum.
7. The term ETIOLOGICAL AGENT refers to….: 12/3
A. A foreign agent that induces the production of antibodies in a host.
B. The bacterium that is responsible for producing a particular disease.
*C. The organism that is responsible for producing a particular disease.
D. A gene that has mutated so that it produces an inherited disease.
8. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: Which of the following is NOT a PARASITE? 12/4
A. The tuberculosis bacterium
*B. The microbe that produces botox or botulism poison.
C. Head lice.
D. HIV
9. Not all organisms that produce an infection are pathogens. 12/4
*A. True
B. False
10. Most of us are host to one or more virulent pathogens. 12/6
*A. True
B. False
11. It is more healthy to breath through your nose than your mouth because…: 12/11
A. The nose directs airborne microbes into the acid stomach.
B. The nose is constructed so as to collect airborne microbes and direct them into the saliva where they are digested by lysozyme.
C. The nose produces defensins that mix with the air and kill any microbes brought in with the air.
*D. The air mixed in the nose so as to trap microbes it carries in the nasal mucus and to warm the air before it reaches the lungs.
12. To minimize the chance of getting a bladder infection one should….: 12/10
*A. Drink lots of liquid so as to urinate frequently.
B. Drink the minimum amount of liquid as frequent urination is a major contributing factor to urinary tract infections.
C. Avoid eating uncooked foods because they contain living microbes that can infect the bladder.
D. Take frequent showers so as to remove the potential pathogens from your body.
13. Based on the definition of the term VIRULENCE which of the following diseases would you consider the most virulent? 12/5
A. Chicken pox
B. Common cold
*C. An HIV infection
D. Zits
14. Because of the advanced state of knowledge about infectious diseases combined with the wide spread availability of antibiotics less than 5 million people on earth die per year from preventable infections.13/3
A. True
*B. False
15. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: A BIOCHIP is….: 13/4
A. A small electronic chip that is implanted in patients to continuously monitor their vital signs.
*B. A small piece of plastic or glass to which are attached 1,000 of unique molecules that can be used to detect other molecules that bind uniquely to them.
C. An electronic chip made from DNA molecules that is likely to replace the present computer chips.
D. A small piece of plastic or glass to which are bonded a variety of antibiotics that is placed in a patient where it slowly releases the antibiotics to fight infections.
Match the choices given below with the BEST descriptions/definitions in the next four questions. A choice may be used once, more than once or not at all:
A. Septicemia
B. Endotoxins
C. Toxoids
D. Exotoxin
16. LPS or lipopolysaccharide: __B__. 13/7
17. Secreted from the cell: __D__. 13/6
18. Pathogen growing actively in the blood: __A__. 13/6
19. Produced only by gram negative bacteria: __B__. 13/7
20. The historical event know as the "BROAD-STREET-PUMP incident" refers to….: 14/3
*A. An outbreak of cholera that led to the founding of the science of epidemiology.
B. The observation that led Edward Jenner to come up with the idea of inoculating people against smallpox.
C. An outbreak of typhoid in London that led to the founding of the science of epidemiology.
D. The development of the first modern sewage treatment plant.
21. Statistical evidence is unreliable when it comes to helping to stop epidemics. 14/4
A. True
*B. False
Match the choices given below with the BEST descriptions/definitions in the next four questions. A choice may be used once, more than once or not at all:
A. Zoonoses
B. Vector
C. Fomite
D. Pandemic
E. Nosocomial
22. Used Kleenex: __C__. 14/7
23. Tick: __B__. 14/7
24. Reservoir in animals other than man: __A__. 14/5
25. Disease caught in a hospital: __E__. 14/8
26. The mechanism of the interaction between an antigen and an antibody involves….: 15/4
A. Macrophage first ingesting the antigen and then presenting it to the antibody.
B. The thymus gland producing cells that bind antigens to the membranes so the antibodies can destroy them.
C. The digestive enzymes of the body cleaving the non-self antigens into molecules that can interact with the antibodies.
*D. A specific ligand-receptor interaction.
27. An EPITOPE is….: 15/5
A. A unique chemical group on an allergen that elicits antibody production.
*B. A unique chemical group on a molecule that elicits antibody production.
C. A unique chemical group on an antibody that elicits antigen production.
D. A unique chemical group on a molecule that is recognized by an restriction endonuclease.
28. Lymphocytes are….: 15/6
*A. A group of cells in the specific immunity system that responds to foreign antigens.
B. A group of cells in the specific immunity system that is found uniquely in the lymph nodes.
C. A class of bacterial pathogens that live in the lymph nodes.
D. A special class of antigens that induce the death of heterocytes.
29. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: Cowpox and smallpox are closely related viral diseases and humans can contract both, but cows suffer only from the cowpox. this is an example of …: 15/7
A. Acquired immunity
*B. Species immunity
C. Adaptive immunity
D. T-cell immunity
30. Statistically northern Caucasians are more resistant to tuberculosis than Black Africans. 15/7
*A. True
B. False
Match the choices given below with the BEST descriptions/definitions in the next five questions. A choice may be used once, more than once or not at all:
A. Active naturally acquired immunity
B. Active artificially acquired immunity
C. Passive naturally acquired immunity
D. Passive artificially acquired immunity
31. Shot of gamma globulin: __D__. 15/8
32. Flu shot: __B__. 15/8
33. In-utero transference of antibodies: __C__. 15/8
34. Recovery from a case of flu: __A__. 15/7
35. Breast fed baby: __C__. 15/8
36. Complement is….: 15/15
*A. A soluble protein complex that resides in the serum and kills by punching holes in the membranes of pathogens.
B. A T-cell type that complements the activity of IgG antibodies.
C. A substance that the body produces that makes you feel good when you are healthy.
D. The cluster of immunological genes that direct antibody formation.
37. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: What type of foreign antigen would you expect T-killer cells to attack? If only ONE of A, B or C is the answer choose it, otherwise choose between D or E.
A. A cancer cell.
B. LPS.
C. A virus infected cell.
*D. Both A & C.
E. All three.
38. The immense variability of antibodies results because….: 15/21-23
A. The proteins that make up antibodies are randomly cut into fragments that are subsequently rejoined to form the functional antibody.
B. The antibody molecule morphs or changes shape to fit each antigen it comes into contact with.
*C. The DNA coding region for antibodies recombines in millions of random ways.
D. Several of the 23 human chromosomes are composed of nothing but genes that produce the millions of different types of antibodies.
39. Which of the following antigenic material would undergo agglutination when it reacts with its antibody? 15/25
A. LPS
*B. Red blood cells.
C. Tetanus toxin
D. Bee venom
40. Anaphylaxis is….: 15/30
*A. An extreme allergic reaction caused by the sudden, rapid, antigen-stimulated release of chemicals from mast cells.
B. An extreme allergic reaction caused by the sudden, rapid, antigen-stimulated release of chemicals from T-killer cells.
C. Another name for the typical allergic response of watery eyes, sneezing and runny nose.
D. The allergic response people have to cockroach antigens.
41. Which of the following is NOT a significant way of transmitting STDs? 16/4
A. Use of contaminated needles.
B. Cross placental transfer from mother to fetus.
*C. Insect bites.
D. Via the anus or mouth.
42. The efficacy (this word means the same as efficiency) of the transmission of STDs is greatly complicated by social attitudes.16/6-7
*A. True
B. False
43. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The major characteristic of the HIV pandemic that makes it difficult to stop is…: 16/15
A. The fact that it is a homosexual disease.
*B. The viruses’ high rate of mutation.
C. Its ability to spread through the air.
D. That people are immoral.
44. The reason HIV destroys the immune system is…: 16/16
*A. Because the virus kills the T-helper cells.
B. Because the virus kills the T-killer cells.
C. Because the virus kills the B-cells that make the antibody.
D. Because the virus kills the thymus gland that is responsible for making T-cells.
45. In which part of the world is the spread of HIV almost exclusively due to heterosexual sex? 16/22
A. The US.
B. Northern Europe.
C. Canada
*D. Asia
46. The one thing that would stop the HIV pandemic instantly is…: 16/26-27
A. Development of a HIV vaccine.
*B. Everyone engaging only in married, monogamous sex.
C. The conversion of everyone on the planet to Christianity.
D. Tougher laws against drug usage.
47. The STD, gonorrhoeae is caused by….:16/7
*A. The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B. The bacterium Treponema gonorrhoeae.
C. A strain of the HIV.
D. The Human Papilloma virus (HPV).
48. A woman who has which STD should be particularly careful to get frequent gynecological exams for cancer throughout her life time.
A. Chlamydia infection.
B. Nongonococcal urethritis.
*C. The Human Papilloma virus (HPV).
D. An HIV infection.
49. For which of these STDs are women considered to be the major reservoir? 16/7
A. A Chlamydia infection.
*B. A Gonorrhea infection.
C. A HPV infection.
D. Syphilis infection.
50. If you have genital HERPES and you haven’t had an outbreak in 10 years you don’t need to tell your sex-partner about your conditions as you are considered noninfectious.
A. True
*B. False
Average = 71.7%
1. Below are 4 different water sources. Each contains one of the materials below in moderate concentration, which one would you feel is most likely safe to drink? 17/5
A. Oil
*B. Calcium salts
C. Clay particles
D. A yellow coloration
Match the following choices with the 5 statements below: 17/5-8 A choice may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A. Declining or decline
B. Increasing or increase
C. 0.01%
D. Staying, or stay, constant
E. <1%
2. The percentage of the world’s water that is freshwater: __C__.
3. As the human population grows, the amount of freshwater available per person is: __A__.
4. As the human population grows, the amount of freshwater on earth is: __D__.
5. As the human population grows, the total amount of water on earth is: __D__.
6. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: If Global Warming causes the glaciers of the earth to melt, the total amount of freshwater on earth will: __A__. Since the bulk of the glacier waters will run off into the ocean and become salty the amount of freshwater will actually decline. Also the sea level will rise because of this.
7. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: I used the term "THRESHOLD" to describe a common human reaction to events (like problems). Choose the statement below that best explains the concept I was referring to. 17/14
A. Humans have a tendency to only respond to problems when a certain level of pain is exceeded.
B. Humans have a tendency to only respond to problems when a certain number of people of the world are adversely affected by some situation.
*C. Humans have a tendency to only respond to problems when their lives are, or appear about to be, directly affected by events.
D. Humans have a tendency to only respond to problems when a story about a bad situation receives a certain level of publicity.
8. Which of the following descriptions of WETLANDS is wrong? 17/14-16
*A. Because of odors and toxic materials produced due to rotting organic matter, wetlands are usually poor biological producers.
B. Wetlands act as gigantic sponges that soak up potential flood waters.
C. Wetlands act as gigantic nurseries of fish and other wild life.
D. Wetlands contribute significantly to cleaning up the pollution of the waters of the world.
9. The final effluent of a sewage treatment plant is treated with chlorine to sterilize it. 17/20
A. True
*B. False
10. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: The final effluent of a sewage treatment plant is low in BOD. 17/22
*A. True
B. False
Below is a list of Water Borne Disease organisms. Match them with the distinguishing (unique or defining) characteristics in the 5 statements below: 17/34-41
A choice may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A. Giardia intestinalis.
B. Hepatitis A
C. Helicobacter pylori.
D. Salmonella spp.
E. Vibrio cholerae.
11. A viral disease often associated with food handlers: __B__.
12. Responsible for the production of most human ulcers: __C__.
13. Gamma globulin is the method of choice for treatment of people exposed to this organism: __B__.
14. A comma-shaped organism that produces a protein toxin that induces violent diarrhea: __E__.
15. Domestic animals are usually the host for this organism: __D__.
16. In the sludge treatment process, the major final products are: 17/23-24
A. Carbon dioxide and methane gas.
B. Bacteria, fungi and carbon dioxide
C. Ethanol, acetic acid and methane gas
*D. Methane gas and undigested material.
17. ACTIVATED SLUDGE is composed of: 17/21
A. The material that settles out in the primary settling tank.
*B. The material that settles out in the secondary settling tank. A portion of this material is them pumped back into the incoming effluent from the primary settling tank.
C. The undigested material remaining after sludge digestion.
D. Sludge that has been inoculated with a special group of bacteria designed to best digest it.
18. In the trickling filter sewage treatment process EBOM is removed: 17/19
*A. As it flows over inert blocks of material coated with microbes.
B. By spraying it in the air which allows oxygen to oxidize (degrade) the EBOM.
C. As it settles in the primary settling tank, during which it under goes efficient anaerobic digestion.
D. When it is treated with the powerful oxidizing agent chlorine which acts to burn up the EBOM.
19. ACTIVATED CHARCOAL in home water purification systems removes (mainly): 17/30
A. Viruses.
B. Radioactive contamination.
*C. Organic compounds like pesticides.
D. Bacteria.
20. The major reason we are running out of potable water is human population. During your lifetime the human population is expected to reach approximately: 17/32
*A. 10 billion
B. 6 billion
C. 50 billion
D. 4.3 billion
21. The second step in the production of potable water from polluted water usually is the: 17/28
A. Storage of the polluted water.
B. Addition of chlorine to the polluted water.
C. Filtration of the polluted water through graded sand.
*D. Chemical flocculation of the polluted water. A is the usual first step.
22. The spice trade that stimulated European commerce & exploration in the middle ages was the result of: 18/5
A. The belief that spices protected people from the bubonic plague.
*B. The bacterial spoilage of meats and other foods.
C. The widespread use of spices in wine making.
D. The idea that spices cured people of infections and improved their virility.
23. The temperature that food must be heated to during canning to destroy the spores of Clostridium botulinum: 18/7
A. 253.4oC
B. 100oC
*C. 123oC
D. 123oF
Match the food preservation method in the list below to the next 5 statements that best described the mechanism of action of a particular preservation method: 18/7-13
A choice may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A. Cooling in the refrigerator
B. Drying
C. Smoking
D. Acetic acid
E. Nitrate & nitrite
24. Lowers the pH to a point where most microbes are inhibited: __D__.
25. By substituting for oxygen prevents the growth of pathogenic anaerobes: __E__.
26. Binds the free water so as to make it unavailable to microbes: __B__.
27. Puts aldehydes into food & binds the free water: __C__.
28. Keeps meats from turning brown: __E__.
29. Food borne diseases in the U.S., while important to those that suffer from them, are a relatively minor and infrequent problem due to our high standards of public health. 18/18
A. True
*B. False
30. About 80% of the foodborne illness (in the US) are caused by: 18/14
A. Food prepared commercially.
*B. Food prepared in the home.
31. The food borne bacterial pathogen, Salmonella enteritidis, is a serious problem because: 18/18
*A. It may be present inside chicken eggs.
B. It is resistant to all the major antibiotics.
C. It has developed a heat-resistant form that is not killed by the usual cooking temperatures.
D. It has adapted to live in the human gut.
32. You have become ill after eating leftover Christmas stuffing that had been stored in a large container in the refrigerator overnight. Which microbe would you most strongly suspect was the cause of your illness? 18/19
A. Escherichia coli 0157:07
B. Campylobacter
*C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
33. Hemmorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with: 18/20
*A. Escherichia coli 0157:07
B. Campylobacter
C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
34. Which of these organisms is thought to be a major cause of TRAVELER’S DIARRHEA? 18/21
A. Escherichia coli 0157:07 Other E. coli strains are associated with TD, but not this one.
*B. Campylobacter
C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
35. The best definition for a STARTER CULTURE is: 19/3
*A. A microbial strain with desirable characteristics that is inoculated into a food to produce a certain product.
B. A microbe that causes milk to form a curd.
C. A soil microbe that accidentally contaminates a food and produces a desired end product.
D. Microbial cultures added to foods to prevent the growth of spoilage organisms in the food.
36. Cheese may be produced only from cow’s and goat’s milk. 19/3
A. True
*B. False
37. In the case of ethanol production, the term FERMENTATION means: 19/9
A. The addition of Hops to wort.
B. The sprouting of the barley seeds.
C. The adding of the bacteria to ferment the sugars.
*D. The anaerobic metabolism of carbohydrates.
38. The statement "bread is a product of microbial action" refers to the fact that: 19/8
*A. Yeast produces carbon dioxide from the sugar in the bread which causes the bread to rise.
B. Yeast convert the gluten proteins in the wheat into amino acids and then digest them to ethanol which causes the bread to rise.
C. Yeast grow on the sugar in the bread and excrete the unique protein called gluten which give bread its unique flavor and form.
D. Yeast break down gluten into ammonia and methane gas, which when heated during baking cause the bread to rise.
39. Silage, a common food for cows, contains high concentrations of organic acids produced by the microbial fermentation of chopped grasses. 19/10
*A. True
B. False
40. Non-food commercial FERMENTATIONS often use waste products from other industrial processes in their media. 19/11
*A. True
B. False
41. The discoverer of penicillin was: 19/14
A. C. Weismann
*B. A. Fleming
C. J. Watson
D. E. Penicillin
42. It is currently possible to incorporate a human gene that makes an important pharmacological substance into the milk-producing gene of other mammals and then harvest the human gene product from the milk. 19/16
*A. True
B. False
43. The theory of BIOREMEDIATION involves: 19/17
A. Isolating microbial enzymes that degrade pollutants and then adding those enzymes to the polluted sites.
B. Using genetic engineering to construct microbes that will metabolize pollutants.
C. Developing microbial industrial processes that only produce non-polluting wastes.
*D. Using microbes to remove pollutants from the environment by metabolizing them.
44. The process of BIOREMEDIATION is based upon the evolutionary principle of natural selection.
*A. True
B. False
45. Evolutionary theory predicts that microbes should evolve that can metabolize man-made chemicals that don’t exist in nature, yet no such microbes have been found that can do this. 20/2
A. True
*B. False
46. Virtually all microbes live in intimate association with other life forms. 20/ 3
*A. True
B. False
47. CRITICAL THINKING QUESTION: MICROHABITATS are: 20/4
A. Habitats, like water and land, that differ environmentally in a small area, such as within a few square feet.
B. Small (few square millimeters) regions that differ in one or more environmental factors from surrounding areas on the land.
*C. Small (few square millimeters) regions that differ in one or more environmental factors from surrounding areas.
D. Small (few square millimeters) regions that differ in temperature from surrounding areas.
48. A MUTUALISTIC SYMBIOSIS is one in which: 20/5
A. Two populations of organisms utilize the same nutrient source.
B. Two or more organisms share the same enzymes and general morphology such as chimps and humans.
*C. Two or more organisms exist in a relationship in which all benefit.
D. Two or more pathogens attack the same host.
49. The GEOCHEMICAL activity of microbes refers to: 20/7
A. Those microbes that oxidize inorganic minerals.
*B. Biochemical activity that has large affects on the earth’s environment.
C. Those microbes that live deep in the earth.
D. Microbes that live in geological significant systems like volcanoes.
50. Root nodules are:
*A. Tumor-like growth on leguminous plants that are stimulated by nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium spp.
B. Special organs formed by some plant species to fix atmospheric nitrogen.
C. Tumor-like growths that many types of plants produce when they are infected by pathogenic bacteria.
D. Plant root-buds from which new roots grow to replace those that are lost.
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A WORD OF ADVICE. The second & third
exams are generally more difficult than the first one.
Copyright 
Dr. Ronald E. Hurlbert,
1999. E-mail address: hurlbert@wsu.edu.
Phone: 509-335-5108